So, in EP you can say "digo-te/dizemos-te" or "amo-te" even though in formal BP a single must say "eu te digo/nos te dizemos" or "eu te amo" as opposed to (the "Improper way") "te digo/te dizemos" or "te amo" (utilized only in very casual spoken language).
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- is there a way to determine which happens to be which determined by the general spelling, word sort and familiarity with anxiety location?
Can it be probable that you simply use private matter pronouns "eu" and "nos" (even when You will find a present, preterite or potential indicative) due to the fact standard (official) language policies You should not permit you to start a sentence that has a proclitic pronoun?
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Larousse -- "perfect for all your language demands" and "offering quickly and realistic methods to the varied problems encountered when examining Portuguese" (but its pronunciation guidebook lacks simple information, contained in one other too),
- is the fact something which takes place naturally with speech due to phrase length regarding syllables/Seems?
I imagine that when individuals are accustomed to employing all topic pronouns in spoken language and when all professors day to day appropriate the absence of the pronouns "eu" and "nos" in acidentes de viação (portuguese - portugal) sentences with clictic pronouns, 1 begin to hire them Just about ever.
Should your dictionaries say something about diphthongs, they're just Mistaken. All People Appears are monothongs. It's legitimate that you have 3 different ways to pronoune the letter o, but none of these is actually a diphthong, which is often represented in crafting.
de meu pai Appears very official just about everywhere in Brazil, apart from when infinitive clause is utilised: de meu pai fazer, which is sometimes listened to in Bahia).
- is usually that something which takes place By natural means with speech mainly because of the phrase duration when it comes to syllables/Appears?
In the ultimate position, the "o" is usually diminished to some "u" audio; when in the course of the word, it could be both open, shut or nasal (you know the sound is nasal when "o" is followed by the letters "m" or "n" in precisely the same syllable).
How occur all a few of them are so misleading? Is there any other Portuguese or any other Brazil the authors experienced in your mind or did they under no circumstances study the language to start with?
The Oxford dictionary claims being "most trustworthy" and "complete reference get the job done" (yet I've identified typos and errors in addition to this in it),
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Are the dictionaries Erroneous or out-of-date? Or do they include a distinct dialect of Brazilian Portuguese than that demonstrated at forvo? Or am I deaf?